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Download: 2026 RPNCE Study Guide Preview
WHAT ARE THE CORRECT MATH ANSWERS?
3000 ml
125 ml
0.5 ml
360 ml
12 - 13 gtts per minute
17 - 18 gtts per minute
21 gtts per minute
31 gtts per minute
Decrease the flow rate by 50gtt/min
125 ml
0.5 ml
360 ml
12 - 13 gtts per minute
17 - 18 gtts per minute
21 gtts per minute
31 gtts per minute
Decrease the flow rate by 50gtt/min
Rationale: Proper calculations ensure safe and accurate drug and fluid administration
What are the five stages of death according to Kubler Ross?
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance (in that exact order)
Rationale: Kubler Ross' theory outlines a psychological process individuals go through when facing terminal illness or significant grief. The stages represent a common, though non-linear, emotional journey
When does La Belle Indifference most commonly occur?
In patients with a conversion disorder
Rationale: La Belle Indifference is a paradoxical lack of concern about physical symptoms and is characteristic of conversion disorder, where psychological stress manifests as physical symptoms
What is the most common complication of moderate anxiety?
A decrease in the ability to perceive surroundings and/or concentrate. This disorder causes selective inattentiveness and a narrowing perception in the patients surrounding environment
Rationale: Moderate anxiety narrows focus and perception, often leading to selective inattentiveness and difficulty concentrating due to the increased cognitive load on the individual
What is the most common defense mechanisms used by patients who suffer from phobias?
Self-protective avoidance (ego defense mechanism)
Rationale: Phobias lead to avoidance behaviors as a defense mechanism to reduce anxiety and stress associated with the feared object or situation
What is the most important concern of a patient who suffers from anorexia nervosa?
Correction of nutritional intake and electrolyte imbalance
Rationale: Patients with anorexia nervosa often suffer from severe malnutrition and electrolyte imbalances, which can be life threatening if not addressed
Why are patients taking Lithium (Lithobid) tested on a monthly basis for?
Lithium (Lithobid) blood serum levels. The therapeutic range between safe and harmful is extremely narrow
Rationale: Lithium has a narrow therapeutic range, and regular blood tests are required to avoid toxicity while ensuring therapeutic effectiveness
What is a normal Lithium (Lithobid) blood serum level?
0.5 – 1.5 mEq/L
Rationale: This is the safe and effective concentration range for lithium in the bloodstream, balancing efficacy with minimized risk of toxicity
What is a toxic Lithium (Lithobid) blood serum level?
2.0+ mEq/L
Rationale: Levels above 2.0 mEq/L are considered toxic and can result in severe adverse effects, including renal failure and neurological impairment
What are the most common characteristics of alcohol withdrawal?
Anxiety, anorexia, tremors, and insomnia
Rationale: These symptoms occur as the body reacts to the absence of alcohol, which the central nervous system has become dependent on
When do alcohol withdrawal symptoms most commonly occur?
Within 8 hours of withdrawal
Rationale: Early withdrawal symptoms begin as the blood alcohol level drops and the body attempts to adjust to the lack of alcohol
Why should Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) not be administered to a patient who has ingested alcohol?
Over sedation and respiratory depression can occur
Rationale: Combining alcohol with chlorpromazine increases the risk of central nervous system depression, leading to dangerous respiratory complications
When does Lithium (Lithobid) toxicity most commonly occur?
Insufficient fluid intake which causes Lithium (Lithobid) retention and buildup to toxic levels
Rationale: Lithium is excreted through the kidneys, and dehydration or insufficient fluid intake leads to lithium retention, increasing the risk of toxicity
What is the most important consideration when dealing with a patient who is depressed?
Increased risk for suicide or suicide attempt
Rationale: Depression significantly raises the risk of suicidal ideation, making this the most critical aspect of care
According to psychoanalytical theory, what is the ego responsible for?
Internal demands. The ego interacts with the environment on conscious, preconscious, and unconscious levels
Rationale: The ego mediates between the id, superego, and reality, operating on conscious and unconscious levels to satisfy internal needs while maintaining external behaviors
According to psychoanalytical theory, what is the SUPER ego responsible for?
Morals, values, and ethics, constantly evaluating thoughts and actions, rewarding the good and punishing the bad
Rationale: The superego incorporates societal and parental standards, evaluating thoughts and actions and instilling feelings of guilt or pride
According to psychoanalytical theory, what is identity responsible for?
Instinctual drive
Rationale: Identity, or the id, represents the most basic, instinctual drives, operating on the pleasure principle and seeking immediate gratification
When is seclusion implemented?
When reduction to overwhelming environmental stimulation, or protection of self-injury or injury towards others is required. Often implemented for patients who do not respond to less intense interventions
Rationale: Seclusion is a therapeutic intervention aimed at controlling the environment to reduce sensory overload or prevent harm to self and others
Why is seclusion an effective treatment?
Assists the patient to regain self-control of external if not external and internal behavior and thoughts
Rationale: Seclusion limits external stimuli and provides a controlled environment, aiding patients in managing both external and internal stimuli
What type of diet will increase the risk of hypertension for patients taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors?
Tyramine rich foods (e.g. aged cheese, beer, Chianti wine, chicken, liver, avocados, bananas, meat tenderizer, salami, and bologna)
Rationale: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors interact with tyramine, leading to dangerous hypertensive crises
What are the most important interventions for a patient taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitors?
Bi-weekly weight records and monitoring for suicidal tendencies
Rationale: MAOIs require careful monitoring due to the risk of side effects like weight gain and increased risk of depression, which may lead to suicidal thoughts
What are the most important characteristics to be aware of when a patient is taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitors?
Heart palpitations, headaches, and severe orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: These side effects are key indicators of the body’s response to MAOIs and may indicate serious reactions such as hypertensive crisis, requiring close monitoring
What are the most common causes of child abuse in adults?
Poor impulse control and lack of education towards growth and development
Rationale: These factors hinder proper caregiving and can result in abusive behavior towards children due to a lack of understanding or inability to regulate emotions
What are the 2 most important diagnostic factors of Alzheimer’s Dementia?
Progressive decline in memory and neuropsychological test results
Rationale: Alzheimer's is characterized by ongoing memory loss and cognitive decline, confirmed through neuropsychological assessments
What factor places a patient at a higher than average risk of suicide?
A patient who has chosen how they want to perform the suicide act, and plan on carrying it to fruition within the next 48-72 hours
Rationale: A concrete plan with a set time frame indicates an elevated risk of suicide, warranting immediate intervention
How are phobic disorders treated?
Desensitization therapy (e.g. gradual exposure)
Rationale: Desensitization therapy helps patients reduce fear by gradually increasing exposure to the feared object or situation, allowing them to build tolerance and reduce anxiety
What are the most important factors during phase 1 of a nurse patient relationship?
Phase 1 – Beginning/Orientation – Initial history and agreement of the nurse – patient contract
Rationale: Establishing trust and setting clear expectations during the orientation phase lays the foundation for a therapeutic nurse patient relationship
What are the most important factors during phase 2 of a nurse patient relationship?
Phase 2 – Middle/Working Phase – Patient discusses problems, behavioral changes occur, and self-defeating behavior is reduced
Rationale: In the working phase, patients explore their issues and begin making positive behavioral changes with the support of the nurse
What are the most important factors during phase 3 of a nurse patient relationship?
Phase 3 – Termination/Resolution – Termination of the nurse – patient relationship and positive feedback of accomplishment
Rationale: The resolution phase involves concluding the relationship by acknowledging the patient’s progress and providing closure
What is the top 3 leading causes of death among teenagers?
Unintentional accidents, homicides, and suicides (in that exact order)
Rationale: These are statistically the most common causes of death in adolescents, reflecting a combination of external and self-inflicted risks
What is the most common link between all successful suicides among teenagers?
Previous attempts of suicide and symptoms of depression (Sadness, melancholy, dejection, worthlessness, and hopelessness that are not proportional to reality)
Rationale: Depression and previous suicide attempts are strong predictors of future suicide risk, especially when compounded by feelings of hopelessness
What are the most common characteristics of anorexia nervosa?
Excessive weight loss, lanugo (fine body hair), abdominal distention, and electrolyte imbalance
Rationale: These characteristics are physical signs of severe malnutrition and starvation in anorexia nervosa, which can lead to life threatening medical conditions
What percentage of cases should child abuse be reported if suspected?
100% of cases
Rationale: Any suspicion of child abuse must be reported, as healthcare providers are legally obligated to ensure the safety of vulnerable individuals, such as children
What is legally mandatory for all nurses to report?
Suspicion of child abuse. This must be reported to Child Protection Services
Rationale: Nurses are mandated reporters of child abuse; failure to report could result in legal consequences and harm to the child
What are the most common characteristics of sexual abuse of a child?
Blood in the feces or urine, penile or vaginal discharge, genital trauma, or a sexually transmitted infection/disease
Rationale: These signs are indicative of trauma or infection caused by sexual abuse, and healthcare professionals must be vigilant in identifying and reporting such cases
What is the best way to clarify a question?
Use an open ended question (yes and no answers CAN BE ambiguous depending on the context)
Rationale: Open ended questions provide more comprehensive responses and help clarify details that may not be captured through simple yes/no answers, especially in clinical settings
What is the most common age a child is diagnosed with Autism?
Between 2 – 3 years of age
Rationale: Autism spectrum disorders often become apparent during this developmental period when social, communication, and behavioral signs of autism emerge
What is the most common reason a patient will use a defense mechanism?
To reduce stress and anxiety (even if just temporarily)
Rationale: Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies used unconsciously to protect oneself from anxiety or stress, offering temporary emotional relief
What are the most important interventions for a patient taking Disulfiram (Antabuse)?
Avoid products containing alcohol such as cough syrup, fruitcake, and sauces or soups made with cooking wine
Rationale: Disulfiram causes severe reactions when alcohol is ingested, so patients must avoid any product containing alcohol to prevent adverse effects such as nausea, vomiting, and headaches
What right does a patient use when admitted by a physician’s recommendation to a psychiatric unit involuntarily?
The ability to sign out freely and leave
Rationale: In some cases of involuntary admission, patients retain the right to leave against medical advice unless legal restrictions have been placed due to concerns for the patient’s or others’ safety
Why do some psychiatric exams use proverbs (stories with lessons) to assess a patient’s mental status?
Schizophrenic patients think in concrete terms thus making it easier to distinguish Schizophrenia. A schizophrenic patient will tend to think of the proverb as a sentence in a story, a less of a lesson or moral
Rationale: Patients with schizophrenia often have difficulty with abstract thinking, which can be assessed by their interpretation of proverbs. A concrete, literal interpretation may indicate impaired cognitive function typical in schizophrenia
What are the most common characteristics of Lithium (Lithobid) toxicity?
Diarrhea, tremors, nausea, muscle weakness, ataxia, and confusion
Rationale: These symptoms reflect lithium toxicity, which can occur when serum lithium levels rise above the therapeutic range, requiring prompt medical intervention
What are the most common characteristics of a borderline personality disorder?
Demanding and judgmental attitude toward interpersonal relationships and violent outbursts
Rationale: Borderline personality disorder is marked by instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect, with frequent mood swings and difficulty managing emotions, leading to outbursts
What medication should NOT be administered if a patient is taking Disulfiram (Antabuse)?
Metronidazole (Flagyl). Psychotic reactions can occur
Rationale: Metronidazole in combination with Disulfiram can cause severe neuropsychiatric reactions, including confusion and psychosis, so it should be avoided in these patients
What 2 complications are rare but have occurred after electro shock therapy?
Cardiac arrhythmias and death
Rationale: Although extremely rare, these complications can occur due to the stress ECT places on the body, particularly the cardiovascular system, requiring close monitoring during and after the procedure
What is the most important intervention BEFORE a patient receives electro shock therapy?
NPO 24 hours prior to prevent aspiration during anesthesia
Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy requires general anesthesia, and fasting helps reduce the risk of aspiration during the procedure
What is the most common anesthetic used during electro shock therapy?
Methohexital (Brevital)
Rationale: Methohexital is a short acting barbiturate commonly used in ECT due to its rapid onset and short duration of action, minimizing recovery time
What is the most common disorder electro shock therapy is used to treat?
Depression which cannot be treated with pharmacological intervention
Rationale: ECT is often used in severe cases of depression that are resistant to medication, offering a highly effective alternative treatment option
How long and how often is electro shock therapy usually administered?
6 – 12 treatments at a rate of 2 – 3 treatments per week
Rationale: This standard regimen of ECT maximizes its therapeutic effects while minimizing potential side effects, offering relief over the course of several weeks
What is the most important intervention during a manic episode?
Slowing the patient down due to a high risk of self-induced exhaustion or injury